Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 20.06.2025 03:18
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Does the West have a defense against China's PL17 air-air missile?
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
How do I convince my husband that a threesome is okay?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
There's no rule.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.